Showing posts with label Procurement Management. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Procurement Management. Show all posts

Friday, February 11, 2022

Understanding Point of Total Assumption (PTA) in Procurement Management


Let’s say you awarded a contract of $1M to a vendor to deliver a critical component for your project. The contract with your vendor is set up with a fixed price, but you have incentivized the contact to get a better-quality component with good performance. As the manager of the project, you are currently witnessing cost overrun for this component. The overrun has not yet hit the final, fixed price yet, but the vendor is saying it is likely to go beyond it.

Now, as the project manager, a number of questions are bound to come up. If it is not you asking, your sponsor(s) and/or key stakeholders may be, and the most likely questions at this time are as follows:

  • How much will be owed if there is cost slippage?
  • Will you pay when the cost slippage becomes more than $1M (or an amount above the contact price)? If so, to what extent beyond?
  • At what point will you stop paying anything to the vendor and hold them responsible for further cost escalations? In other words, will you let the contract become a pure fixed price contract?

All these questions lead us to a concept known as Point of Total Assumption (PTA). To understand PTA, we will first look at some basics in procurement management. These are quite foundational and easy to understand, but important as we proceed further.

If you are aspiring to be a Project Management Institute® Project Management Professional (PMP)®, you will need to fully grasp this concept, as questions on PTA can come up on examinations.

Price, Cost, Profit, Incentives

In any contract, there are usually two parties, the buyer and the seller. The buyer obviously pays the seller to purchase an item. The buyer pays the price for the item purchased, but there are differences among price, cost, and profit.

The formula combining them all is this:

Let’s say you bought toothpaste for US$10. This is the price you pay to the seller, not the cost of manufacturing the toothpaste. The cost for the seller to manufacture the toothpaste may be US$8, and hence, their profit becomes US$2. In such a case, the following is true:

  • Cost = US$8
  • Profit or Fee = US$2
  • Price = US$10

Of course, items like toothpastes are commodities, but these concepts of price, cost, and profit still apply.

Another term to consider in contract management is incentives. Incentives come into play because sellers are mostly focused on profit. Buyers are more focused on cost, schedule, quality, performance, etc. Incentives help bring together the objectives of the seller, as well as the buyer. An incentive motivates the seller to put forth the best effort designed by the buyer where efficiency is needed. Types of incentivized contracts can be:

  • Fixed Price with Incentive Fee (FPIF)
  • Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
  • Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)

Point of total assumption (PTA) is applicable for Fixed Price with Incentive Fee (FPIF) contracts. I will say more on that shortly.

Terms Related to PTA

First, let’s understand the terms of price, cost, and profit in the context of incentivized contracts. In the case of incentivized contracts, the terms used are target cost, target fee, and target price, respectively. You see, you are incentivizing the contract, and therefore, you are pre-pending the terms with the word, target!

Target price, target cost, and target fee are the ingredients of a FPIF contract, and with these, we derive a formula for PTA. We will see this shortly, but first I’ll define the terms we are considering:

  • Target Cost (TC): The amount taken by a seller to create or develop an item.
  • Target Profit or Margin or Fee (TF): It is the margin taken by the seller on top of cost.
  • Target Price (TP): Target Price is very similar to price, but used for comparison with Final Price. It is the measure of success. The formula for TP is Target Price (TP) = Target Cost (TC) + Target Fee (TF).
  • Buyer Share Ratio (BSR) or Share Ratio (SR): Sharing Ratio describes how cost savings or cost overrun will be shared between the buyer and seller. For example, 80%:20%. The first percentage is for the buyer, and the second is for the seller. For every $1 cost overrun, 80 cents will be paid by the buyer and 20 cents by seller.
  • Ceiling Price (CP): Ceiling Price is the highest price the buyer will pay. In other words, profit for the seller at CP is minimal because by that time, a cost overrun has happened. The CP is typically 115% to 120% of the Target Cost.
  • Point of Total Assumption (PTA): It is actually the point of total cost assumption or the cost beyond which the buyer will not pay a cent more to the seller.

With these basic definitions in mind, let’s get deeper into the definition of PTA, the formula to calculate the PTA, and an example of PTA hopefully providing further explanation.

PTA Definition

Point of Total Assumption can be defined as follows:

Point of Total Assumption is that point during cost overrun where the ceiling price of a fixed price incentive (FPI/FPIF) contract has been reached. At this point, the FPI contract converts to a firm-fixed price (FFP) contract.

To elaborate further, these statements are characteristic of PTA:

  • PTA comes into play during cost overrun of a contract.
  • When we talk of PTA, it is actually associated with cost. Hence, a default PTA term can also be called “PTA Cost” or even “Point of Total Cost Assumption.”
  • At the PTA cost, the ceiling price (CP) is reached. Hence, “PTA Cost” is also known as “Ceiling Cost.”
  • With cost overrun and before PTA, there can be various sharing ratios between the buyer and seller, as negotiated. Beyond PTA, the sharing ratio (or buyer sharing ratio) is ALWAYS 0%:100%.
  • Beyond PTA, the FPIF contract converts to a firm fixed price (FFP) contract. After all, at PTA cost, the ceiling price is hit, and beyond this price, the buyer won’t pay anything at all.

PTA Formula

As we know, PTA is for cost overrun. This cost overrun happens when the cost is obviously above the target cost. Hence:

Cost overrun at PTA = PTA cost – Target Cost

At PTA, the buyer’s share of cost overrun will be:

(PTA Cost – Target Cost) × BSR

The total price paid by the buyer to the seller will include this share amount, too. Hence:

Price at PTA = Target Cost + Target Fee + (PTA Cost – Target Cost) × BSR

We have seen earlier when exploring the basics of procurement management that:

Target Price = Target Cost + Target Fee

Using this in the above equation, we will get:

Price at PTA = Target Price + (PTA Cost – Target Cost) × BSR …. [1]

We also know that when PTA cost is hit, the ceiling price is reached. In other words, when PTA is reached in the cost curve, the price curve will hit the ceiling price (PTA price equals ceiling price). Hence:

Price at PTA = Ceiling Price …. [2]

Considering both equation [1] and equation [2]:

Target Price + (PTA Cost – Target Cost) × BSR = Ceiling Price

=> (PTA Cost – Target Cost) × BSR = Ceiling Price – Target Price

=> PTA Cost – Target Cost = (Ceiling Price – Target Price)/BSR

=> PTA Cost = (Ceiling Price – Target Price)/BSR + Target Cost.

“PTA Cost” as we know is the default PTA term. Hence, the formula for PTA will be:

An Example

Let’s consider an example to get a better hold of the PTA concept. Remember, when I am saying PTA, by default, I mean “PTA Cost.”

Let’s say that in a contractual agreement, the buyer and seller agreed to a cost of $300,000 and a profit of $30,000. The buyer has informed that the ceiling price will be $360,000. Beyond the target cost, the sharing ratio between the buyer and seller will be 60%:40%.

What is the PTA? To solve this question, first, we need to assign values to the various components:

  • Target Cost (TC): $300,000
  • Target Fee (TF): $30,000
  • Target Price (TP): $300,000 + $30,000 = $330,000
  • Sharing Ratio (SR or BSR): 60:40
  • Ceiling Price (CP): $360,000

Now, the PTA is as shown (by applying the formula):

= [ (C.P – T.P) / BSR] + T.C

= [ ($360,000 – $330,000) / 0.6] + $300,000

= [ ($ 30,000)/0.6] + $300,000

= $50,000 + $300,000

= $350,000

In this case, the point of total assumption (PTA) or PTA Cost comes as $350,000.

Next, let’s see how PTA Price equals the Ceiling Price. After all, this is what I’ve outlined as the definition of PTA.

Cost overrun at PTA = PTA Cost – Target Cost, so:

= $350,000 – $300,000

= $50,000

The buyer’s share in this cost overrun is as follows:

= 60% × $50,000

= $30,000

The seller’s share in this cost overrun is:

= 40% * $50,000

= $20,000

Hence, the Price at PTA = Target Price + Buyer’s share, so:

= $330,000 + $30,000

= $360,000

The above value equals the ceiling price or C.P. In other words, at PTA or PTA Cost, the ceiling price has been met. You can also say you’re at ceiling cost when the ceiling price has been met.

Another thing to note is this: Cost overrun has already happened when the cost crossed over the $300,000 threshold, or the target cost, in our example. Of course, with cost overrun, the profit margin will decrease.

Now, the questions that are likely coming to mind may be:

  • Is there any profit at PTA?
  • Does profit become zero at PTA?

Let’s calculate the profit!

Profit at PTA = Price at PTA (or C.P.) – Cost at PTA, so:

= $360,000 – $350,000 = $10,000

This is not the initial target fee of $30,000, but a reduced fee of 10,000. So, we have some profit at PTA, although it is much reduced than the initial target profit.

Significance of PTA

Now that we know how to calculate the PTA, let’s check the significance of PTA by using the above example. With this, many misconceptions related to PTA will be dispelled.

1. At PTA, the profit is not equal to the target profit before. Rather, at PTA, the profit or margin is usually reduced.

As we saw in our example, at PTA, the margin is reduced from$30,000 to $10,000. Hence, while plotting a graph for PTA, if you see that the margin is kept the same (as before the PTA is reached), the graph is wrong. In my experience, many project managers use such wrong graphs.

The profit at PTA can be a reduced by one, zero, or negative. This is dependent on the BSR. Obviously, at a higher BSR, profit will be more, as compared to a lower BSR.

2. From the point of cost overrun till PTA, the sharing ratio will be the BSR. Beyond PTA, sharing ratio becomes 0%:100% (effectively irrelevant).

As shown in the example, from the point of cost overrun till PTA, the sharing ratio is 60:40. That is, for every $1 overrun, the buyer will pay 60 cents whereas the seller will pay 40 cents. Beyond PTA, the buyer won’t pay anything more, hence the sharing ratio becomes 0:100. For every $1 cost overrun, the seller’s profit decreases by $1, or said another way, loss increases by $1.

3. At PTA, the FPIF contract becomes a FFP contract.

The seller assumes all responsibility for further cost overrun beyond PTA. Incentives no longer apply. Hence, the contract becomes a firm fixed price (FFP) contract.

4. PTA incentivizes the contract and asks the seller to put forth a better performance.

For every one dollar overrun beyond PTA, the seller will pay (or lose) that dollar. This money will come from the seller’s margin. Therefore, PTA incentivizes the contract and asks for the seller to control cost. From the point of view of the seller, PTA can be considered to be the inflection point.

5. PTA doesn’t usually apply to a Cost Plus Incentive (CPIF) contract, rather it’s used in Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPI/FPIF) contract.

As we have seen, the calculation of PTA requires a ceiling price (CP). The ceiling price is not set in a CPIF contract, so PTA is not usually set or calculated in CPIF contracts. Rather in CPIF contracts, a Range of Incentive Effectiveness (RIE) is usually considered.

Graphical Representation

The concept of PTA can be explained graphically. Graphical representation is very helpful because we are able to pictorially represent various incentive scenarios.

Following our example, when we plot a graph for PTA in a cost-profit curve, it looks as shown below. The graph is drawn with the help of MS Excel software.


As shown, we have the cost depicted in the X-axis, whereas the profit is shown in the Y-axis. This graph has two lines: the “Sharer Line” and the “Ceiling Line.” The sharer line meets the ceiling line at PTA.

In the beginning, the target profit or margin is $30,000 with the target cost being $300,000. This is represented with the yellow dotted line. When cost overrun happens, the profit margin starts decreasing.

When we reach the PTA, we reach an inflection point and the ceiling line takes over. This line is utilized because, at PTA, the ceiling price has been reached. As you can see, there is still some profit of $10,000. The ceiling price of $360,000 is reached at the PTA cost (or ceiling cost) of $350,000. This is represented in the red dotted line.

This curve also explains how PTA incentivizes the contract. The buyer is willing to share a certain amount of cost overrun based on BSR, but beyond PTA, as the ceiling price is hit, the seller is fully responsible. As we have seen before, from this point onward the contract becomes an FFP one. If further cost overrun happens, obviously, the seller will incur losses and they will be a steeper!

Analyzing PTA - Video

I’ve put together a video depicting a graphical interpretation of PTA. It is taken from my PMP Live Lessons, and uses our example showing how PTA is used in cost overrun. I also plot the data for every $10,000 cost overrun in MS Excel. My video [Duration: 5m:29s] shows how the graph is plotted and the significance of PTA along with the ceiling line and sharer line.

For best experience, you may want to go full-screen HD and use earphones.


A Note on the PMP Exam

If you are an aspiring PMP, you may be wondering about the kind of questions you would be getting on PTA in the PMP examination. The questions are likely to come, but will be easy to solve if you have understood the concept I’ve outlined here well.

It’s always better to assume with facts than blind or total assumption. The concept of PTA nudges us in that direction—assume, but with data and facts.

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This article was first published by MPUG.com on 19th May, 2020. 



Sunday, June 07, 2020

PMP Prep: Range of Incentive Effectiveness (RIE) - How to Derive the Formulas?




We have understood the Range of Incentive Effectiveness (RIE) with the basics and the associated formulas in the earlier article

Now, let’s go a bit deeper and see how RIE is represented graphically in the cost-profit curve. This you need to know, before we derive the formulas for RIE. This will give you a better understanding.


The content of this article has been taken from: PMP Live Lessons – Guaranteed Pass

You can read the previous article on RIE here: 
Range of Incentive Effectiveness in Procurement Management


Cost-Profit Curve in CPIF Contracts
The cost-profit curve is widely used by Contract Administrators or Procurement Managers. This is a two-dimensional (2D) graph and pictorially shows:
  • RIE (min) point,
  • RIE (max) point,
  • Profit or Fee (max) point,
  • Profit or Fee (min) point, and of course,
  • Range of Incentive Effectiveness (RIE).

The cost-profit curve for a Cost Plust Incentive Fee (CPIF) contact is depicted in the below figure. 


Range of Incentive Effectiveness (RIE): Cost-Profit Curve

As shown above, in the X-axis we have cost, whereas profit is shown in the Y-axis. At RIE (minimum) cost point, the profit is maximum or it’s Fee (max). At RIE (maximum) cost point, the profit is minimum or it’s Fee (min). These are shown in red dotted lines.

Finally, RIE – the range in which the incentive is effective – is the range between RIE (min) and RIE (max). 

The target cost is shown with blue dotted line and target cost/profit point is shown with a blue circle.The blue dotted lines are projected to X-axis giving you the target cost (TC) value and projected to Y-axis giving you the target profit (TF) value. 

Below are few key points to note by looking at the above graph:
  • At RIE (min), the profit is maximum or Fee (max).
    RIE (min) in cost curve = Fee (max) in profit curve
  • At RIE (max), the profit is minimum or Fee (min).
    RIE (max) in cost curve = Fee (min) in profit curve
  • Target Profit or Target Fee (TF) is less than the Fee (max), but more than Fee (min).
    TF < Fee (max); TF > Fee (min)
  • Target Cost (TC) is less than RIE (max), but more than the RIE (min).
    TC < RIE (max); TC > RIE (min)

With these key points, let’s derive the formulas.

Deriving RIE Formulas
First, we will check upon the formula for RIE (min).

I. Formula for RIE (min) – Cost Underrun
RIE (min) will be during cost underrun. During cost underrun, the actual cost (AC) will be less than the target cost (TC). This is obvious. Hence:

Cost Underrun is the subtraction of actual cost from target cost, i.e.,
Cost Overrun = Target Cost (TC) - Actual Cost (AC)

Now, the actual fee (AF) will be an addition to the target (TF), along with the seller’s share of cost gain because of cost underrun. This is added, because the seller performed well from cost perspective and seller is entitled to gets it extra share. 

But do note: the total fee given to the seller can NOT be more than the Fee (max).

Hence, from the seller’s perspective: 
Actual Fee (AF) = Target Fee (TF) + (Cost Underrun) × SSR
= Target Fee (TF) + [Target Cost (TC) – Actual Cost (AC)] × SSR …. [1]

We already know at RIE (min) point from the earlier graph, the fee is at maximum or it is Fee (max). This is when you project the profit it into the Y-axis of the above graph. In an equation:

Actual Fee (AF) = Fee (max) …. [2]

Also, we know at this stage actual cost (AC) is in fact the RIE (min). This is when you project the cost it into the X-axis of the above graph. In an equation:

Actual Cost (AC) = RIE (min) …. [3]

Hence, considering equation [2] and equation [3] and putting these values in equation [1], we will have:

Fee (max) = Target Fee (TF) + [Target Cost (TC) – RIE (min)] × SSR
=> Fee (max) = TF + [TC- RIE (min)] × SSR
=> Fee (max) - TF = [TC- RIE (min)] × SSR
=> [ Fee (max) – TF ] / SSR = TC- RIE (min)
=> RIE (min) = TC – ( [ Fee (max) – TF ] / SSR )

This what I mentioned in earlier piece of RIE as the formula for cost underrun.




Next, we will derive the formula for RIE (max).

II. Formula for RIE (max) – Cost Overrun 
RIE (max) will be during cost overrun. During cost overrun, the actual cost (AC) will be more than the target cost (TC). This is also obvious. Hence:

Cost Overrun is the subtraction of target cost from actual cost, i.e.,
Cost Overrun = Actual Cost (AC) - Target Cost (TC)

For the actual fee (AF), we have to subtract seller’s share ratio of cost overrun from the target fee (TF). This is subtracted, because the seller performed badly from cost perspective and seller will have to pay its share. 

But do note: the total fee given to the seller can NOT be less than the Fee (min).

Hence, from the seller’s perspective: 

Actual Fee (AF) = Target Fee (TF) – (Cost Overrun) × SSR
= Target Fee (TF) - [Actual Cost (AC) - Target Cost (TC)] × SSR …. [4]

We already know at RIE (max) point from the earlier graph, the fee is at minimum or it is Fee (min). This is when you project the profit it into the Y-axis of the above graph. In an equation:

Actual Fee (AF) = Fee (min) …. [5]

Also, we know at this stage actual cost (AC) is in fact the RIE (max). This is when you project the cost it into the X-axis of the above graph. In the equation:

Actual Cost (AC) = RIE (max) …. [6]

Hence, considering equation [5] and equation [6] and putting these values in equation [4], we will have:

Fee (min) = Target Fee (TF) - [Actual Cost (AC) - Target Cost (TC)] × SSR
=> Fee (min) = TF - [RIE (max) - TC] × SSR
=> [RIE (max) - TC] × SSR = TF – Fee (min)
=> RIE (max) - TC = [ TF - Fee (min) ] / SSR
=> RIE (max) = TC + [ (TF - Fee (min)] / SSR ] 

This what I mentioned in earlier piece of RIE (max) as the formula for cost overrun.



III. Formula for RIE

Finally, the formula for RIE will be:



Conclusion
As noted in earlier part for RIE, questions on PTA have been coming in the PMP exam for quite some time. A related concept to know is Range of Incentive Effectiveness (RIE), which is used in CPIF contracts. 

I don’t expect many questions on Range of Incentive Effectiveness (RIE) in the PMP exam. Like the concept of Point of Total Assumption (PTA), questions will be very few, if it comes. However, it is an excellent one to know and understand Procurement Management better.


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Thursday, June 04, 2020

PMP Prep: Range of Incentive Effectiveness in Procurement Management




Recently, I wrote an article on Point of Total Assumption (PTA), which is used in Fixed Price with Incentive Fee (FPI/FPIF) contracts. 

One of the biggest misconceptions I’ve seen – PTA can surely be used in Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) – has been dispelled in the article. I’ve mentioned the reason for it. I’ve also mentioned that Range of Incentive Effectiveness (RIE) is used in Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) contracts.

Article: Point of Total Assumption in Procurement Management


Questions on PTA have been coming in the PMP exam. In a recent success story, a successful PMP mentioned questions are there on PTA in the exam. In other success stories also, PMPs have mentioned on PTA questions. Another candidate recently asked on the Range of Effectiveness (RIE). As questions on PTA (at most one or two) come, I believe it’s good to know on the RIE concept as well. If you understand PTA well, you can easily understand RIE.

Hence, this post. In this article, we will know more about RIE.


RIE Definition 
The range of incentive effectiveness in a CPIF contract can be defined as follows:

“Range of incentive effectiveness is simply the range of costs in which the incentive is effective. Below this range or above this range, the contract behaves like a Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract.”

In other words, below this range of incentive effectiveness (RIE), after paying a fixed fee to the seller, the buyer share is 100% and sellers share is 0%, i.e., the sharing ratio between buyer and seller is 100%:0%. Similarly, above RIE, after paying a fixed fee to the seller, the sharing ratio between buyer and seller is 100%:0%.

The fee is paid to the seller, because the contract behaves as a CPFF contract, as the previous definition informs. Also, when the CPIF contract becomes a CPFF contract, the fee for the seller becomes fixed.

If there is profit below the RIE, then this profit is taken up by the buyer, after paying the fixed fee to the seller. Similarly, if there is a loss above the RIE, then the loss is also taken by the buyer, after paying the fixed fee to the seller. This concept of RIE is displayed in the below figure.


RIE - Simplified Image, One-Dimentional (Cost)

As shown above, the RIE is basically the cost range – from a minimum RIE cost point to a maximum RIE cost point. You see, in the name itself we have the term “range”!

In case of cost underrun, the buyer takes all the share after the fixed fee of the seller is given. Similarly, during cost overrun, a fixed fee is given to the seller and the buyer has to take all the share. Remember outside RIE zone, the CPIF contract behaves as a CPFF contract!

Hence, beyond RIE, incentive has no effectiveness.

We will understand more of it with an example shortly, but first let’s understand the terms related to RIE in CPIF contracts.

I’ll also strongly recommend that you read the concepts of cost, profit, fee and incentive in the article earlier mentioned. It’s under section: “Price, Cost, Profit, Incentives”.


Terms Related to RIE
When I say terms related to RIE, I mean terms related to CPIF contracts. As noted earlier, RIE is usually the case in CPIF contracts. The terms are:
  • Target Cost (TC): The amount taken by a seller to create or develop an item.
  • Target Fee (TF): It is the profit taken by the seller on top of cost. It is also known as margin or fee.
  • Target Price (TP): Target Price is a combination Target Cost and Target Fee. The formula for TP is Target Price (TP) = Target Cost (TC) + Target Fee (TF).
  • Share Ratio (SR): This is the sharing ratio between buyer and seller, e.g., 80:20. The first percentage is for the buyer, and the second is for the seller. It means for every $1 cost overrun; 80 cents will be paid by the buyer and 20 cents by the seller.
  • Buyer Share Ratio (BSR): This is the share ratio for the buyer. In the above case, the buyer share is 80%. It means for every $1 cost overrun; 80 cents will be paid by buyer. Also, for every $1 cost underrun; 80 cents will be taken by the buyer.
  • Seller Share Ratio (SSR): This is obviously the difference from 100%. In the above case of 80:20, the seller share ratio is 20%. It means for every $1 cost overrun; 20 cents will be paid by seller. Also, for every $1 cost underrun; 20 cents will be taken by the seller.

As you would have noticed the terms are very similar to the ones used in Fixed Price with Incentive Fee (FPIF) contracts. Now, I’ll introduce four more related terms to understand RIE. These are particularly applicable to CPIF contracts.
  • Maximum Fee or Fee (max): In CPIF contract, the fee is incentivized and the maximum fee informs the maximum amount that can be taken as a profit or fee. It is typically +3% or +4% above the target fee (TF).
  • Minimum Fee or Fee (min): The minimum fee informs the minimum amount that can be taken as a profit or fee. It is typically -3% or -4% below the target fee (TF).

Both maximum and minimum fee limit is set by the buyer for the seller.
  • RIE (max): This is the cost at minimum fee or Fee (min). In the range of incentive effectiveness, the cost is at its maximum point; hence simply named as RIE (max). This cost point is reached in the cost-profit curve, when the profit or fee is minimum.
  • RIE (min): This is the cost at maximum fee or Fee (max). In the range of incentive effectiveness, the cost is at its minimum point; hence simply named as RIE (min). This cost point is reached in the cost-profit curve, when the profit or fee is maximum.
Do note again: in the profit-cost curve, we have the following key points.
  • When cost is at RIE (min), we have Fee (max).
  • When cost is at RIE (max), we have Fee (min).

With this understanding, I’ve expanded the previous figure, and showing only the cost part, in one-dimensional (1D) format.


RIE - Explanatory Image, One-Dimentional (Cost)

As shown in the above figure:
  • At RIE (min), the fee is maximum. In other words, when the Fee is maximum, in the range of effectiveness, we are at RIE (minimum) cost point.
  • At RIE (max), the fee is minimum. In other words, when the Fee is minimum, in the range of effectiveness, we are at RIE (maximum) cost point.

Also, the figure informs that the target cost (TC) is somewhere between the RIE (min) and RIE (max) cost points.


RIE Formulas
Now we have two RIE points – RIE (min) and RIE (max). And at RIE (min), the fee is maximum and at RIE (max), the fee is minimum.

It’s obvious that when the fee/profit is maximum, then there is cost underrun, whereas when the fee/profit is minimum, there is cost overrun.

Hence, there will be two formulas for RIE.

RIE (min) Formula – Cost Underrun
RIE (min) will be during cost underrun. The formula for RIE (min) is depicted below.



RIE (max) Formula – Cost Overrun
RIE (max) will be during cost overrun. The formula for RIE (max) is noted in the below figure.



RIE Formula
As the Range of Incentive Effectiveness (RIE) is the cost range between RIE (min) and RIE (max), obviously, the formula for RIE will be the one shown below.



Example
Let’s take an example to understand. I’ll reuse the same example given in PTA for FPIF contracts. This will make your understanding easier and also easy to solve.
An Example of RIE

Question: In a CPIF contract, the buyer and seller agreed to a cost of $300,000 and a fee (or profit) of $30,000, which is 10% of the cost. Because it’s a CPIF contract, the maximum fee is set at 13% and the minimum fee is set at 7% of the cost. The share ratio between the buyer and seller will be 60%:40%. Determine the RIE (max) and RIE (min) values, along with the range of incentive effectiveness (RIE).

Solution:
From this example, let’s find out the values.
  • Target Cost (TC): $300,000
  • Target Fee (TF): $30,000
  • Target Price (TP): $300,000 + $30,000 = $330,000
  • Sharing Ratio (SR): 60:40
  • Buyer Sharer Ratio (BSR): 60% or 0.6
  • Seller Sharer Ratio (SSR): 40% or 0.4
  • Maximum fee or Fee (max): 13% of TC, i.e., 13% of $300,000
    Fee (max): $39,000
  • Minimum fee or Fee (min): 7% of TC, i.e., 7% of $300,000
    Fee (min): $21,000

We will first calculate the case for RIE (min), which is for cost underrun.

Calculation for RIE (min)
RIE (min) = TC - [ Fee (max) – TF ] / SSR
=> RIE (min) = $300,000 – [($39,000 - $30,000)] / 0.4           40% is 0.4
= $300,000 – [$9,000]/0.4
= $300,000 – $22,500
= $277,500

Next, let’s calculate the case for RIE (max), which is for cost overrun.

Calculation for RIE (max)
RIE (max) = TC + [ (TF - Fee (min)] / SSR ]
=> RIE (max) = $300,000 + [($30,000 - $21,000)] / 0.4           40% is 0.4
= $300,000 + [$9,000]/0.4
= $300,000 + $22,500
= $322,500

Calculation for Final RIE
Hence RIE = RIE (max) – RIE (min) = $322,500 - $277,500
RIE = $45,000


Conclusion
In this range of incentive effectiveness, i.e., $45,000, the CPIF contract is effective. Beyond this range – above RIE (max) of $322,500 or below RIE (min) of $277,500 – the CPIF contract no longer behaves like an incentivized contract. Rather, it behaves like a CPFF contract.

For the PMP exam, you need to know these basics to answer questions. The questions are most likely to be direct in nature for RIE and for that you need to just remember the formulas. Sometimes the questions can be a bit tricky, e.g., it might give you just the Fee (max) and Fee (min) values and you will be asked to calculate RIE.